It seems that in this thread, people have difficulty following a somewhat involved argument.  The point I argued AGAINST, was:

- "industrials should pay high wages to their personnel, because otherwise they don't have customers that can buy their products".

I argued against it by providing a similarly erroneous statement which applied this time not to entrepreneurs that make goods, but to workers that produce labor (call it reductio ad absurdum):

"workers should pay more labour to their employers so that these can sell cheaper products, and so that employers can buy more labour"

and I argued ALSO against it with my "weak" form of Say's law.

My point is that there is no need that it are LABORERS that buy products.  It can just as well be share holders.  The more you pay to laborers, the less you pay to your share holders.  So the more your laborers can buy your products, the less your shareholders can buy your products.

I gave an ultimate example of a hypothetical totally automatic production, where there is NO labor any more.  Then all the income goes to share holders.  They can just as well buy the products, while according to the theorem I am arguing against, if there are no wages, there would not be any consumption.  That's simply not true, because what is not paid as wages, can be paid as dividends.

That's the contents of my "weak" version of Say's law.