I admit that I'm often mistaken, but aren't those "inputs" and "outputs" public keys corresponding to private keys that can be used to sign transactions? And there's a 1-1 mapping between keys and addresses (right?). So, in some sense, aren't those inputs and outputs in correspondence with addresses?
No.
The outputs contain a script, and these scripts in this transaction do contain a hash of a public key, but an output isn't required to have a hash of a public key, or it could contain the hash of multiple public keys. Even if it does contain the hash of a public key, it may not be a P2PKH script or a P2SH script, in which case there is no valid address that the output script could be represented as.
The inputs contain the necessary data to satisfy the script in the previously unspent output that is being spent. In the transaction presented, the script that is being satisfied did require a public key, so the input does contain a public key, but other scripts in other transactions may require multiple public keys, or no public keys at all.