I think there are not enough subwaves in your 1. It is possible to force it but then 4th subwave is very much shorter than 2nd. Can you show how would you subdivide it?
Also there are so clear divergences between my ((iii)) and ((v)) which I can't ignore (EWO, RSI, daily CMO, volume and bid/ask volume ratio). Even though ((v)) is extended.
There are enough subwaves if you say that iii of (iii) of 1 has a blowout v, but i think we are beyond counting the smaller internals of 1 in retrospect of what I think is ii, overly big to be wave iv and nearly 62% of the move. The smaller count might have the same problem with ii being too big, but small gives way to big. I can see the merits of both counts.
If this is wave I of (III) here then the divergence is fine imo because as long as this stays above the trendlione defined by hypothetical wave 1 then the chances are always good that wave 3 is extending.
