You are wrong, because you assume anyone would use a currency with a 51% weakness already in progress, and because your formula doesn't account for the initial investment in hardware required to achieve that 51%. You are only accounting for operating expense with that $212 million.
I am confused (as to why you would attempt to disagree with me given your limited intelligence and knowledge base).
The K value I calculated is the annual capital expense (otherwise why would I include the interest rate and depreciation rate in the calculation?).