I'm not sure.

I got some infos that are getting me to believe that there is a possible formula behind it.

I give you an example. I'm playing around by creating random formulas, and I get pretty much similar results. Yet they are predictable with a formula.

All I use for inputs are 2 arrays, one with the current position and another with the sequential list of prime numbers.

For example:

Consider n = count, p = prime numbers, and y = sequence based on the formula 2^n + (n mod p) * Log(n+1, 2) <--- Random formula I invented.

y / 2^p + 1 and y-2^p *-1 are similar formulas to what was shown before for the var x in the real sequence, their results also appear to be random...

n	p	y = 2^n + (n mod p) * Log(n+1, 2)	y / 2^p + 1	y-2^p *-1
0	2	1	1.25000000	3
1	3	3	1.37500000	5
2	5	7	1.22406016	25
3	7	14	1.10937500	114
4	11	25	1.01234752	2023
5	13	45	1.00548399	8147
6	17	81	1.00061679	130991

Yet this sequence is breakable with a simple formula.

EDIT: this formula doesn't make any sense I know, just playing around