Well if you think my logic is reasonable than how would you answer that question?

I don't know for sure, but I'd suspect it's precisely for the reason that they are becoming increasingly Socialist.

You could probably say that an increasing wealth disparity is the same thing as a decreasing or shrinking middle class, correct? Just like you could say that a lessening of wealth disparity would indicate a growing middle class. It's always been seen as a great success of the USA and similar western societies that they've had a large middle class where anyone could earn a decent living at a job.

To me it seems to make sense that in an environment with the most economic freedom you'd have a lesser wealth disparity. 100 or 200 years ago there was next to nothing for regulation, income tax did not exist, people understood that nobody had the right to steal their productive output. Liberty was just common sense! Fast forward and we've seen increasing regulations, increasing taxes, welfare state, war on drugs, and an overall decrease in individual freedom. It costs a TON of money to police the world, incarcerate people, wage perpetual wars, and promise everybody free shit under the illusion of "rights". The problem is it's extremely wasteful and so resources that should be in the hands of the poor and middle class are being taken to administer this monstrosity called the US government. Huge wealth disparity is the price we pay for bureaucracy!

There is a difference between productive work and unproductive work. Production and wealth come from growing food, building things, and saving! Whereas what government (socialism) does is pays people to dig ditches all day and then somebody else to fill them back in every night.