I'm sure this question has been done to death but I haven't found an answer yet. Why do people talk so often about 2040 and 2140 as the estimated end date of the block subsidy? I had read 2140 in the early days and so took that number for granted. Andreas Antonopoulos uses 2140 in his book. Bank of England talk about 2040 in their papers as do many other people. I always assumed 2040 was typo. To settle it, I've made my own calcs.
Assuming exactly 4 years between each 210,000 milestone then the year 2105 is when the last subsidy will be mined according to me.
What am I missing?
The formula used:
http://i.imgur.com/zWrkjI4.jpgAnd the table it produces:
http://i.imgur.com/xxVcKj5.jpg
