if the first quarter Betking buys back 5% of the 10% offered, or 5,000,000 BKB - with then next quarter divide the profit by 95,000,000 outstanding BKB? Or will it always be divided by 100,000,000?
Basically, what happens to the re-purchased shares? And how will that affect future profits for the investors?
Surely: when shares are purchased they stop being owned by the seller, and start being owned by the buyer. If Dean buys 5 million shares from investors, Dean will have 5 million more shares than he had before, and so will get an extra 5% of the profit. Investors will get 5% less of the profit, but individual investors who don't sell won't be affected by those who do.
Thank you for trying to answer, but I think you're missing my point.
If the buyback is being purchased from the bankroll profits that all investors share in, but the shares are only going to Dean/Betking - then I see an issue, especially if future profits are still divided by the full 100,000,000 shares.
While the bankroll will be reduced by 5% in this case, all those shares that are bought back are going to Betking and not the remaining investors.
Maybe I'm not understanding, or I'm missing something - hence the reason I'm asking.
Thanks,
Dave