no he said he sold 50 coins last week at $113. so that money was in fiat. he was going to use that for rent. but then he said screw rent I can buy those same 50 coins back NOW at $93. So in no profit has been realized until he sells the 50 that he just bought at $93. When he sold at $113 he could have bought at $150, so that would have been a loss. is this correct to assume?
Why? It doesn't matter what order he made the trades in. He's left with the same number of coins + 1100 extra USD. That's profit on those two trades taken together.
The point he's making is: If OP bought his 1000BTC for $150 each, then did this buy/sell business, he wouldn't be in profit, he would be mitigating his losses. That's just how I interpreted it (the post I made earlier shows how this was not the case, however the theory is still valid)
K.