I do accept however that a medium term dollar equivalent (at today's values not including hyperinflation) could be $1000 or $0 with a low (2 digit) dollar value being less likely than $0.
How is it possible that a low 2 digit dollar value is less likely than zero.
Why ? Because it needs to pass through the low two digit and single values to get to zero. If this ever happened it would bounce so high multiple times before it ever got to zero.
So if the value ever goes to zero low 2 digit values are 100% guaranteed and so are both low and high single digit values.
If its worth $X and something happens to make it worth $0, who will be paying $2 for it to go to $2 "on the way"? ...