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Person B can buy pretty much the same amount with that dollar that they could before, not six million times less.
its like you didn't even read my point.
if Person B starts off with $1 out of the $2 total he has the same purchasing power as Person A, they both hold 50% of the cash
when Person B ends up with $1 out of $6,000,001 total he loses purchasing power, because he now holds a very small percentage of the cash
WHAT DONT YOU GET?
Its not that hard to understand