The stock market crash of 1929 was not because the US government had been printing money and pumping up the stock market with the newly printed money. Where did you get this idea from?
Who said anything here about the government, it was the individual private banks that were on fractional reserve since their inception in the 1600s.
And these individual private banks had been printing the US dollars that their clients pumped up the stock market with? Are you sure?
I see that you are bitterly confusing some historical events. Back in the 1930s not only was there no hyperinflation but just inflation was not present. The CPI (Consumer Price Index) was at a level of 17.3 in September of 1929, and by March of 1933 it had fallen to a level of 12.6. This amounts to a deflation rate of 27% and an increase of 37% in the purchasing power of the US dollar...
I`m talking about the hyperinflation in Germany.
You said that "printing money and pumping up the stock market" was the reason behind the stock market crash of 1929. Later you said that "the stock market crash was the result of money printing, because otherwise it would have not created a hyperinflation". Now you pretend that you were talking about the hyperinflation in Germany, which had happened in the early 1920s (before the issuance of the Rentenmark in 1923)... How come?
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