So, what do you think about the idea that the "effective bankroll" is not what is displayed on the JD website, but is actually a greater number due to the "sideline" money that would come in should the JD bankroll become depleted?
This was my argument for why it may make sense to have a max bet % greater than 1% of the funds physically held by JD.
I don't know if you can make assumptions about that money. We don't know what would happen if funds became depleted. A reasonable assumption of what sideline investors would do if investment drops 30% might not be the same as if investment drops 99%. My point is it's non-linear. I like Doog's fraction reserve/investment thing because it makes it explicit.
I just wanted to give you a heads up that making a default 2% max profit sets you in high-variance no-expected investment growth territory, and that's scary shit!
