No. This is faulty logic. It assumes that its just as easy to go from $150 to $2500 as it is to go from $15 to $266. This is just not true. The amount of cash into the markets to make this happen is an exponential amount.
It holds if the volume of trades in both periods ($150 to $2500 and $15 to $266) is the same, but it doesnt need to be the case