Does it belong to them already, I thought it would have to go to court to actually seize them properly.
I too was wondering how the gov could sell seized assets of someone who has not had a trial.
The accused consents to the sale without waiving the right to a trial. Why would someone do that? Because both the accused and gov realize the asset will likely be worthless if they wait until the case is resolved.
Ross may never see the cash. But, at least there is something waiting for him if he can prove his innocence.