Yet no scamming or dishonesty happened.
Must be language barrier. I have no other way to explain how you can keep claiming that failing to disclose the existence of reserve and/or your intent to bid isn't dishonest.
I don't think we have a language barrier here. Let's try to digest this properly. Who was scammed here? The auction rules did not mention existence of a reserve price, nor the lack of reserve price. (Standard, at least in US law, seems to be that auctions have a reserve.) Standard in these forums seems to be the contrary. But who did I scam and what was the dishonest action I did? Why particularly has the auctioneer announce his willingness to possibly bid, too? Why are other bidders not announcing such? What makes the auctioneer not worth the same as any other bidder? Auctioneer can't change the way the auction will roll, not any more than any other bidder could.
Stop harping about the US law. This is not a court case.
You're not just the auctioneer. You're the seller too, no commission involved here, so you can bid a million bucks and essentially cancel the auction without explicitly doing so. It's a shitty thing to do, particularly since you hadn't disclosed that option in advance. Why didn't you just say "Fuck it, I'm not gonna ship this to you" to the winner?