In my opinion, such a comparison makes no sense. Why did you decide to equate the amount of money supply in dollars to the total supply in bitcoins? Why such a comparison can not be made to the euro, yuan, or other currency? And what is the practical meaning of this comparison? There is no relationship between the volume of money supply of any state and the volume of cryptocurrency.
The OP is not comparing. The OP is using USD as an example for their idea. They are rather comparing the volume with the % of the currency owned. Not the volume of fiat to the volume of crypto.
It is a fair idea the OP has. They are talking about the currencies divisibility.