Perhaps you might even be able to figure out that 1 USD at time t (e.g. in the year 1995) is almost never the same as 1 USD at time s =/= t (e.g. today).
Yes, it is. 1 USD = 1 USD, always, every day since April 2, 1792.
Your example doesn't hold regardless of the presence of a central bank as it concerns the argument at hand.

My example was serving to make what you were saying more logically palatable, and then you mangled it to make it once again illogical.
When bitserve said this:
It's just an equal sign with both *IDENTICAL* values at each side of the equal sign. That shouldn't be debatable.
he is _clearly_ talking about a reflexive property here, X = X. You are arguing against that, saying no, X doesn't equal X because X before is different than X now. While its value changes, the USD is not inherently different. It is always the same denomination of legal tender to be used in the U.S. for goods and services. The _value_ as measured against a basket of currencies or a gallon of milk or whatever is different -- that is a characteristic of X. You're just saying flat out X ≠ X, which is dumb.