And the irony is that wages in the US have been outperforming inflation since WWII, barring a few rather short periods
I would hardly call 1973 - 2020, which represents 47 years and 63% of the years since the end of WWII, a "rather short period". For the majority of the time, wages have not been outperforming inflation. If they had been, then why have real wages never been higher than they were in 1973?
I'm curious if you don't understand how elaborately you are cherry-picking here?
Seriously, what made you took 1973 as a starting year when wages peaked after WWII? As I am talking about the entire post-WWII era, the point which you strongly emphasized, it looks like you should take the entire period of 75 years. So stick to the point