Just a quick question on the discrepancy between AM1 and the fractional AM100 stock price. I suspect moving fractional shares to be easier to trade due to greater volume thus more attractive to short term investment. AM1 benefit from 5% greater dividend return due to no administration fees. Historically what has been the price difference between 100 AM100's to an AM1?
Nearly the same. Not to be rude but both charts are there for viewing havelock, it would be trivial for you to simply... look at both charts.
No offense taken. I attempted to do precisely that but found the exercise difficult given the method of presentation. I saw no harm in simply asking and appreciate the answer in that the arbitrage can provide useful information given there should be a direct correlation.