I know; I'm honest, I haven't thought through all the probabilities yet, but it feels wrong somehow. Like, those 2-bit throws are 2x as likely as the 1-bit throws, so it should be all fine, but to fully trust this technique, I'd either need to write it out
To me, this
feels perfectly fine and logical

If you roll a dice, the first bit is either a 0 or a 1, and both have 50% chance. The same for the second bit. I can extrapolate from there
