Is there any wording in Article 72 that allows a foreign country to take over a country by coups, just so the foreign country can use the country they took over just to conquer another country?
There is no clear understanding of what the people of Ukraine think. But there is clear understanding that their government was taken over by one or more US coups.
Kinds messes with the meaning and intent of Article 72, right?
There is no clear understanding of what the people of Ukraine think. But there is clear understanding that their government was taken over by one or more US coups.
Kinds messes with the meaning and intent of Article 72, right?
Apples and cucumbers, my friend. Next time try some reading maybe? If you can't read in English, here is the original:
https://www.hist.msu.ru/ER/Etext/cnst1977.htm#iii
The USSR doesn't even exist. How is anybody going to fulfill it these days except by new agreement? So, why even bring it up?
