As we know that most gambling sites will require you to gamble and wager your whole balance once, before you can cash out or withdraw from the gambling site and they take this measure so people do not do money laundering whereby deposit and withdraw without gambling.
Now the point here is that on the gambling site, there are many easy winning bets with odds like 1.01x etc. If the money lauder is sensible he can easily be wagering the whole amount by placing a few bets where the odds are very low and the winning chances are 99%.
So does this mean that there is a loophole here and the money launderers can easily bypass this wagering requirement?
Ops you should not that gambling games are unpredictable and no matter how low the odds are it does not determine the winning ratio of the games, in fact, sometimes, casinos try to play tricks on gamblers by obviously giving the low odds to the weak team and giving a very high odds for the stronger team, this could easily mislead the gamblers into selecting the wrong team if he follows the odds.
So for such no matter how sensible the alleged money launderer is, there is still a tendency that he will lose the money if he wagered the total balance trying to meet to 1x wager requirements on all deposits.