I don't believe so.


That would only prove that he is the second owner, the one who only spoke English and not Spanish any more. In fact he staked the address just after the posting gap indicating a change of hands and when he started speaking in English (and never wrote in Spanish again). Another thing I see is that in the first period he did not apply for any bounty but after a short time he applied, which usually happens when accounts change hands.


Please enlighten us, why would someone who has spent two and a half years writing only in Spanish, switch to writing only in English?