quick one, I had Chelsea and my opponent had man city for the cup question, both teams had 2 goals but Chelsea won with 2 goals and City drew 2:2. My question is since both teams had 2 goals as per highest scoring question that was asked. Does it mean there's no winner in that particular question?
The question is who will win by the bigger margin. City is already incorrect.
So far Chelsea is the correct answer. Arsenal needs a 2-0 win for both to be correct and any other handicap win (3-1, 4-2 etc) will mean only Arsenal is correct.
Any sort of 1-goal win for Arsenal (1-0, 2-1 etc) means Chelsea is the correct answer.
That being said, I think my game with Kokee44 is going to penalties. Arsenal's winning easy tomorrow.