So this is always a 50% 50% making that dice like a coinflip. Am i thinking right?
Well.. no. That's the case only if the dice is completely unbiased (which is never the case). If, say, {1, 2, 3} have 20% each, then {4, 5, 6} have 13.3% each. This will produce the same result as a coin that is 60% heads and 40% tails.
It doesn't make sense to roll a dice as if you're tossing a coin; toss the coin in the first place using
von Neumann's method. It will eliminate any bias and produce theoretically complete randomness.