i mean that Ps+Pr=P1 , Pt + (-Pr) =P2.
What is the probability of P2+(-P1)=Q , Q being in range 1billion .
And yes i know how that dividing work , but something wierd happens when you keep dividing you could say we get new automatic subranges
You don't know where Pt is, so when you make that "difference" you might as well go straight to the left of Ps, exiting the search interval, instead of "shrinking" the current range into a subrange.
yes but even if it the two pass by if that interval of passing is in the 1b range we will still gets the x value , because it will be the inverse of it