Ex:
RICH ($10,000 * 1.10 odds) = $11,000
POOR ($5 * 1000 odds) = $5,000
The question, can it be used to generalized the real situation in this gambling word? I dont think so because gamblers has their own way to gamble regardless they are poor or rich.
I do like to bet small to hunt big multiplier and I do it most of the time, does it mean that I'm categorized as poor just because my betting style/strategy?
On the opposite site, betting big on low odds does not mean that the gambler is rich, who knows? because a poor can do a YOLO bet with all his money with low odds.
Sorry to say that I do not agree with your conclusion as what you write in the title.