Didn't England have 1 goal scorer in the game ? If the first goal was an own goal, it wasn't scored by an English player which means England had only one goal scorer in the match, or am I misinterpreting the question ?
Actually full question was written that potential own goal will be counted as different goalscorer. I guess the cro2 mafia really anticipated the own goal huh
My bad, I guess I didn't read the final part of the question

England have also got to be the most useless big team in Europe, just names, all barks, not bite!