The 60P of Gen3 were completely paid upfront from withheld dividends. No financing was needed. That is clearly visible in the last financial report (almost no liabilities).
What was the cause for the negative cashflows then?
To pay for Gen3. If you have more money flowing out than flowing in during a certain period, your cashflow is negative.
(Edited for correcting my own stupidity. Thanks, jjdub7.)