Quote from: Elwar on March 13, 2018, 01:22:05 AM

It is not rape because there was a benefit from the act.

The outcome is what matters in defining rape, not the act.

It depends upon how much force is used for the sex to determine if it was rape. If it was not a lot of force used then it was not rape.

If the person who raped you is bad/corrupt, then it can be considered rape.

If the government rapes you legally, it cannot be considered illegal. Rape is only the illegal act of forcing someone to have sex. It is the price we pay to live in a civilized society.

I suppose you realise how controversial what you just wrote is...

Rape is typically defined as the absence of consent. So whether or not a woman has an orgasm is irrelevant. The relevant question is, did she consent/agree to the sexual act. If not, if there is force as you suggest, it is rape.

Then, as you said, there is the difference between statutory and non-statutory rape.

Statutory rape is where the law explicitly lays down when a sexual act is rape or not rape (perhaps even in cases where both partners consented). This is normally the case with younger children. For example, it may be rape if a 16 year old boy has sex with a 14 year old girl (if the legal age for consent is 16). Even if both consented.

I am not sure that any country legalises rape by governments but some countries do not think there can be rape within marriage.

Countries that recognise rape outside of the pre-defined parameters of statutory rape will probably focus on the issue of consent/agreement. Hence, in many countries it will not be possible for government agents to rape a woman and it not be considered as such.

Finally, "that is the price to pay"?! I completely disagree. The laws in many countries simply need to change, and to be brought up to modern day standards and values.

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