Quote from: B.A.S. on January 08, 2015, 02:13:33 PM

That is quite interesting, specifically when in comparison to the US. Here, possession/receiving stolen goods is a burden of proof placed on the state before any charges can be brought against the receiver who unknowingly received the stolen goods.

Of course, the unaware citizen must truly be unaware (able to defense his position if called upon in court), but the mere possession of stolen property (given it truly is) is not technically illegal if the one who possesses it did not know.

This is so too in most European countries. If you can demonstrate good faith in acquiring the goods (not crazily underpriced, no suspicious market, ....) so that any honest citizen couldn't reasonably suspect the goods to be stolen, then you having in possession stolen goods is not a crime by itself. However, the stolen goods can be seized and you will not get any compensation.

However, you are punishable if you could reasonably have some doubts about the legal origin of the goods. If you can buy a brand-new top-class Mercedes for 5000 Euro from a street dealer, then you should be suspicious. You will not be able to prove "good faith" in that case, and you will be charged with healing.
If you buy however, say, a second-hand car 10% under the market price in a second hand car garage, and all the paper work is done normally, then you will get away with 'good faith'. 10% can still be considered simply "a good deal" and not an outrageously low price that should make you suspicious. But if the car was stolen, it will be seized and you've lost your money.