Perhaps you might even be able to figure out that 1 USD at time t (e.g. in the year 1995) is almost never the same as 1 USD at time s =/= t (e.g. today).
Yes, it is. 1 USD = 1 USD, always, every day since April 2, 1792.
Your example doesn't hold regardless of the presence of a central bank as it concerns the argument at hand.

My example was serving to make what you were saying more logically palatable, and then you mangled it to make it once again illogical.
When bitserve said this:
It's just an equal sign with both *IDENTICAL* values at each side of the equal sign. That shouldn't be debatable.
he is _clearly_ talking about a reflexive property here, X = X. You are arguing against that, saying no, X doesn't equal X because X before is different than X now. While its value changes, the USD is not inherently different. It is always the same denomination of legal tender to be used in the U.S. for goods and services. The _value_ as measured against a basket of currencies or a gallon of milk or whatever is different -- that is a characteristic of X. You're just saying flat out X ≠ X, which is dumb.
You sound like you'd identify as genderfluid.
At least Bitserve can make arguments and have debates in an attempt to communicate, while you just bring up complete crap and then run your mouth every single time you post anything.
While its value changes, the USD is not inherently different.
Yes, it is, that's the point. One is always under any circumstance functionally reflexive over time, regardless of whether you compare a 2019 BTC with a 2019 or a 2041 BTC, the other is not. I'd tell you to learn to read but that clearly won't save you.
The matter of fact remains, as soon as a central bank prints too much money the underlying fiat currency
loses its function as money which is something that
can not happen with BTC. Nobody ever tried to argue that the denomination changes. That's the whole point of the argument.
Fiat currencies deliberately muzzle this fact and it's clearly going way over your head.